Hi first post, new user of PT.
I was wondering something and don't know if there is a well-known answer to my question. If so, great!
Let' say that you have a stat on a player Enemy4. He Raises pre-flop when first to act (early early position) let's say 1% of the time, and calls 2% of the time.
Now, that would SEEM to mean that when he raises or calls when acting first pre-flop, he has either:
the top 1% of possible starting hands (raise), or the top 2-3% (call).
This is obvious.
What's not so obvious was the question which occurred to me the other day.
Do 99% of the players in decent no-limit games ($1 BB or higher) actually KNOW the mathematically correct rankings of pre-flop hands?
i.e. do they use the Sklansky groups 0 - 7 (modified or unmodified, whatever) religiously?
Or are there a large group of players out there for whom (3 3) pre-flop is > (Ace King), i.e. they simply don't know the pre-flop rankings well enough for me to make a logical deduction from their percentage play pre-flop?
You know what I mean?
Essentially, I'm asking how closely poker players adhere to Group rankings preflop, and if anyone has run data to check this. I'm not sure exactly how to do it.
{Note, I'm not worried about good players stealing blinds with bad hands or set farming low pairs into a big pot, I'm talking about the straightforward situation given above...}
Thanks for reading the post and for any comments.
Yours in Poker and SQL,
--WOROBOROS
