Question regarding VPIP percentages

[Nitilism]

I am new to working with custom stats so I apologize if this is obvious...but if the vpip stat is constructed by the sum of times a player puts money in the pot divided by the total hand count, and for the sb the vpip_sb is sum of times a player puts money in the pot while in the sb divided by the times he was in the sb.

assuming an aggressive game, for instance such as where the sb steals hu, the bb 3-bets, and the sb four bets to call the bb's shove with some frequency

is the sb vpip (1+1+1)/1 yielding 300% or does the sb vpip actually get calculated (1+1+1)/(1+1+1) yielding 100% - or stated differently is the cnt_sb or the sum of times a player had the chance to act in the sb or the only the sum of times a player was dealt cards in the sb? Or does 4-betting and calling 5-bets not count toward the vpip so it would get calculated as 1/1?

Thanks

[WhiteRider]

It is the sum of hands in which the player [voluntarily] puts money in the pot, not the sum of the number of bets they make.
So for a single hand (like your example) it will only ever be 1/1.